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  • What is the difference between infallible and inerrant?
    Yet, he agrees that "modern theologians insist on redefining that word also, so that it actually says less than 'inerrancy '" Lindsell (1978) states that "The very nature of inspiration renders the Bible infallible, which means that it cannot deceive us It is inerrant in that it is not false, mistaken, or defective "
  • church history - Where did the idea of the inerrancy of the King James . . .
    Just to point out that the KJV wasn't in existence until some 1,500 years after those Bible texts you list were penned Different Bibles had been translated prior to 1611, when the KJV first appeared So, if you could address reasons why those earlier translations were not considered inerrant by those in favour of the KJV, that would be
  • church history - When was the Bible formally declared to be inerrant . . .
    a New Testament text declares itself or another NT text to be inerrant infallible, one or more early church authors declare some OT NT text to be inerrant infallible, or the closed canon (with or without the Deuterocanon) is declared inerrant infallible by the Church, before or after the Great Schism
  • Is The Bible truly infallible? Is it inerrant without divine . . .
    Is there any way to show that, without a doubt, The Bible is inerrant? No, so long as our view of what the Bible is, is entangled with a pejorated text The events of the Bible are real and true, and the doctrine of Jesus Christ taught in the Bible is true, but its modern editions contain errors
  • terminology - From a Fundamentalist standpoint, what does the phrase . . .
    Infallible has a stronger meaning than inerrant Inerrant means the Bible contains no errors Infallibility means it cannot contain errors; that is, it would not be possible Again, this concept is a direct result of the doctrine of inspiration The Bible cannot contain errors because it is wholly the inspired word of God
  • What is truly meant when it is said that Holy Scripture is inerrant . . .
    Thus the view of the early Church is that the Bible is an accurate, God-inspired testimony, the written document accurately reporting the foundations of the faith, but not necessarily inerrant as defined by modern criteria, and the Old Testament is certainly not inerrant when exclusively interpreted literally
  • How do Biblical inerrantists explain disagreements about the . . .
    Preserving an inerrant Bible doesn't require the humans who transmitted it to be inerrant (Example: Daniel didn't have to be an inerrant human for inerrant truth to be conveyed by his story) But ensuring that everyone, ever, who ever reads the Bible understands it in it's totality every time, perfectly, does basically require humans to be
  • origin - What is the history of the doctrine of inerrancy . . .
    I'm narrowing the scope to Christianity, as it's my understanding that Jewish tradition does not hold the idea of the Hebrew Bible (Old Testament) being inerrant Personal Anecdote: I grew up attending church in the 60's and 70's; the idea of inerrancy wasn't considered in the churches I attended It seems that the "Chicago Statement on
  • How can a reasonable faith be placed in the Being that inspired the . . .
    The adherents of inerrancy would then incline to make their native Bible translation inerrant Presumably, the KJV, however, there is no way to pick which among the hundreds of editions of that version and also among its authorised versions' editions should be considered the inerrant one Those who want to ascribe that infallibility to Greek
  • Who first distinguished between the inerrancy of the Bible and the . . .
    Within Jewish circles, there was a belief that scripture was inerrant as early as 200CE (or as late as 500CE) as recorded in the Babylonian Talmud In A History of the Jewish People in the Time of Jesus Christ, author Emil Schürer notes "He who says that Moses wrote even one verse of his own knowledge is a denier and despiser of the word of God" 3





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