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  • What does raca mean? - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange
    Raca comes from the Aramaic term reqa It was a derogatory expression meaning “empty-headed,” insinuating a person’s stupidity or inferiority It was an offensive name used to show utter contempt for another person
  • What does Jesus mean regarding Raca, and you fool? - is he . . .
    There is an important distinction between the biblical definition of a fool and the word Jesus used (raca) in Matthew 5:22 when He forbade calling a Christian brother a “fool ” The term raca, spoken from a heart of contempt, implied utter worthlessness Jesus was not saying that we cannot call the choices of another foolish
  • Why did Jesus say to call someone a fool puts you in danger of hell?
    God, who examines the very thoughts and intents of the heart, will issue judgment upon unrighteous anger Next, Jesus warns against name-calling, using “raca” as an example (verse 22b) Raca comes from the Aramaic term reqa It was a derogatory expression meaning “empty-headed,” insinuating a person’s stupidity or inferiority
  • Comparison of English word fool in original Hebrew and Greek
    Raca means "empty headed," very similar to how we use "fool" today Jesus also uses moros in that verse, which is the root of moron While we normally need to take care not to commit the root fallacy, this one does mean the same thing The word used in Hebrew is nabal which has more to do with consistently making bad moral choices
  • Are Jesus words about calling someone a fool a contradiction?
    The exhortations regarding 'Raca' and 'fool' are bracketed by two conditions Firstly, Jesus says in verse 22, 'whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause ' This is a matter between brethren It is not a matter of distant strangers falling out And it concerns some one being angry when there is no just cause for his anger
  • What did Jesus mean by fool in Matthew 5:22?
    “But I tell you that anyone who is angry with a brother or sister will be subject to judgment Again, anyone who says to a brother or sister, 'Raca,' is answerable to the court And anyone who says, 'You fool!' will be in danger of the fire of hell ” (Matthew 5:22; NIV, emphasis added)
  • How to reconcile Matthew 5:22 and 1 Corinthians 15: 36?
    22 But I say to you that everyone being angry with his brother will be liable to the judgment, and whoever shall say to his brother 'Raca,' will be liable to the Sanhedrin But whoever shall say, 'Fool!' will be liable to the Gehenna of fire Despite this warning from Jesus, Paul called the Corinthians "fool" 1 Corinthians 15:
  • Why does Jesus say that calling anyone a fool will send us to hell?
    This, suggests a simple explanation for Jesus' teaching in Matt 5:22 - sins of murder, unprovoked anger, "raca" and declaring someone a fool can be forgiven unless a person refuses to repent of the sin and allow God to cleanse us from unrighteousness
  • Why did Jesus use the words You have heard that it was said. . . ?
    21 “You have heard that it was said to the people long ago, ‘You shall not murder,[a] and anyone who murders will be subject to judgment ’ 22 But I tell you that anyone who is angry with a brother or sister[b][c] will be subject to judgment Again, anyone who says to a brother or sister, ‘Raca,’[d] is answerable to the court
  • What changed between the Old and New Testaments?
    Matthew 5:21 and 22 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment: 22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the





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